CIS 333 Final Exam (3 Sets)

CIS 333 Final Exam (3 Sets)

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This Tutorial contains 3 Set of Finals
Question 1 SIP is a ___________ protocol used to support real-time communications.
Question 2  What name is given to a U.S. federal law that requires U.S. government agencies to protect citizens’ private data and have proper security controls in place?
Question 3 This security appliance examines IP data streams for common attack and malicious intent patterns.
Question 4  What name is given to an exterior network that acts as a buffer zone between the public Internet and an organization’s IT infrastructure (i.e., LAN-to-WAN Domain)?
Question 5  ____________ is the amount of time it takes to recover and make a system, application, and data available for use after an outage.
Question 6  The requirement to keep information private or secret is the definition of __________.
Question 7  The physical part of the LAN Domain includes a __________, which is an interface between the computer and the LAN physical media.
Question 8  The _________ Domain connects remote users to the organization’s IT infrastructure.
Question 9 The world needs people who understand computer-systems ________ and who can protect computers and networks from criminals and terrorists.
Question 10  With wireless LANs (WLANs), radio transceivers are used to transmit IP packets from a WLAN NIC to a _____________.
Question 11  As users upgrade LANs to GigE or 10GigE, switches must support ________ and data IP traffic.
Question 12  Voice and unified communications are ________ applications that use 64-byte IP packets.
Question 13 The ________ in analog communications is one error for every 1,000 bits sent; in digital communications, the __________ is one error for every 1,000,000 bits sent.
Question 14  What term is used to describe streamlining processes with automation or simplified steps?
Question 15  What is meant by application convergence?
Question 16  If VoIP traffic needs to traverse through a WAN with congestion, you need ___________.
Question 17  What term is used to describe a packet-based WAN service capable of supporting one-to-many and many-to-many WAN connections?
Question 18  The total number of errors divided by the total number of bits transmitted is the definition of __________.
Question 19  What is meant by DS0?
Question 20 ________ is the basis for unified communications and is the protocol used by real-time applications such as IM chat, conferencing, and collaboration.
Question 21 Prior to VoIP, attackers would use wardialers to ________.
Question 22  Which of the following is the definition of netcat?
Question 23  In a ________, the attacker sends a large number of packets requesting connections to the victim computer.
Question 24  Malicious software can be hidden in a ________.
Question 25 A software program that collects information about Internet usage and uses it to present targeted advertisements to users is the definition of ________.
Question 26  ________ is a type of attack in which the attacker takes control of a session between two machines and masquerades as one of them.
Question 27  A ___________ is a software program that performs one of two functions: brute-force password attack to gain unauthorized access to a system, or recovery of passwords stored in a computer system.
Question 28 A protocol analyzer or ____________ is a software program that enables a computer to monitor and capture network traffic.
Question 29 What is meant by promiscuous mode?
Question 30  A _________ has a hostile intent, possesses sophisticated skills, and may be interested in financial gain. They represent the greatest threat to networks and information resources.
Question 31  __________ tests interrupt the primary data center and transfer processing capability to an alternate site.
Question 32  How often should an organization perform a risk management plan?
Question 33  __________ is rapidly becoming an increasingly important aspect of enterprise computing.
Question 34  When you accept a __________, you take no further steps to resolve.
Question 35  What name is given to a risk-analysis method that uses relative ranking to provide further definition of the identified risks in order to determine responses to them?
Question 36  What name is given to a comparison of security controls in place and the controls that are needed to address all identified threats?
Question 37 The process of managing risks starts by identifying __________.
Question 38  Which of the following is the definition of business drivers?
Question 39 A ___________ will help identify not only which functions are critical, but also how quickly essential business functions must return to full operation following a major interruption.
Question 40 What is meant by risk register?
Question 41  The ____________ is the central part of a computing environment’s hardware, software, and firmware that enforces access control for computer systems.
Question 42  What is meant by physically constrained user interface?
Question 43 Biometrics is another ________ method for identifying subjects.
Question 44  _____________is the process of dividing a task into a series of unique activities performed by different people, each of whom is allowed to execute only one part of the overall task.
Question 45  An organization’s facilities manager might give you a security card programmed with your employee ID number, also known as a ________.
Question 46  Which of the following is not a type of authentication?
Question 47  Two-factor __________ should be the minimum requirement for valuable resources as it provides a higher level of security than using only one.
Question 48 A mechanism that limits access to computer systems and network resources is ________,
Question 49  What term is used to describe a device used as a logon authenticator for remote users of a network?
Question 50 The Bell-La Padula access control model focuses primarily on ________.
Question 51 The process of managing the baseline settings of a system device is called ________
Question 52 Which of the following is the definition of system owner?
Question 53 ___________ are the benchmarks that help make sure a minimum level of security exists across multiple applications of systems and across different products.
Question 54 Which of the following is the definition of guideline?
Question 55 A security awareness program includes ________.
Question 56 One of the most popular types of attacks on computer systems involves ___________. These attacks deceive or use people to get around security controls. The best way to avoid this risk is to ensure that employees know how to handle such attacks.
Question 57 The ___________ team’s responsibilities include handling events that affect your computers and networks and ultimately can respond rapidly and effectively to any event
Question 58 ________ states that users must never leave sensitive information in plain view on an unattended desk or workstation.
Question 59 What name is given to a method of developing software that is based on small project iterations, or sprints, instead of long project schedules?
Question 60 The primary task of an organization’s __________ team is to control access to systems or resources.
Question 61 As your organization evolves and as threats mature, it is important to make sure your __________ still meet(s) the risks you face today.
Question 62 Security audits help ensure that your rules and __________ are up to date, documented, and subject to change control procedures.
Question 63 _________ was developed for organizations such as insurance and medical claims processors, telecommunication service providers, managed services providers, and credit card transaction processing companies.
Question 64 SOC 2 and SOC 3 reports both address primarily ________-related controls.
Question 65 A method of security testing that isn’t based directly on knowledge of a program’s architecture is the definition of ________.
Question 66 The ___________ framework defines the scope and contents of three levels of audit reports.
Question 67 ________ provides information on what is happening as it happens.
Question 68 The primary difference between SOC 2 and SOC 3 reports is ________.
Question 69 Which of the following is the definition of hardened configuration?
Question 70 What term is used to describe a reconnaissance technique that enables an attacker to use port mapping to learn which operating system and version are running on a computer?
Question 71 It is necessary to create and/or maintain a plan that makes sure your company continues to operate in the face of disaster. This is known as a ________.
Question 72 Forensics and incident response are examples of ___________ controls.
Question 73 ___________ is the likelihood that a particular threat exposes a vulnerability that could damage your organization.
Question 74 An intrusion detection system (IDS) is an example of ___________ controls.
Question 75 What term is used to describe something built in or used in a system to address gaps or weaknesses in the controls that could otherwise lead to an exploit?
Question 76 A(n) ________ is a measurable occurrence that has an impact on the business.
Question 77 A company can discontinue or decide not to enter a line of business if the risk level is too high. This is categorized as ________.
Question 78 A threat source can be a situation or method that might accidentally trigger a(n) ____________.
Question 79 An organization knows that a risk exists and has decided that the cost of reducing it is higher than the loss would be. This can include self-insuring or using a deductible. This is categorized as ________.
Question 80 A _________ determines the extent of the impact that a particular incident would have on business operations over time.
Question 81 In a ________, the cryptanalyst possesses certain pieces of information before and after encryption.
Question 82 A ________ is an encryption key used to encrypt other keys before transmitting them.
Question 83 What term is used to describe an encryption algorithm that has no corresponding decryption algorithm?
Question 84 What name is given to an object that uses asymmetric encryption to bind a message or data to a specific entity?
Question 85 _______________ enables you to prevent a party from denying a previous statement or action.
Question 86 What name is given to random characters that you can combine with an actual input key to create the encryption key?
Question 87 What is meant by key distribution?
Question 88 What name is given to an encryption cipher that is a product cipher with a 56-bit key consisting of 16 iterations of substitution and transformation?
Question 89 The most scrutinized cipher in history is the ________.
Question 90 ________ is a one-way calculation of information that yields a result usually much smaller than the original message.
Question 91 Which of the following is the definition of network address translation (NAT)?
Question 92 A firewall that examines each packet it receives and compares the packet to a list of rules configured by the network administrator is the definition of ________.
Question 93 Which OSI Reference Model layer creates, maintains, and disconnects communications that take place between processes over the network?
Question 94 What term is used to describe the current encryption standard for wireless networks?
Question 95 Which OSI Reference Model layer uses Media Access Control (MAC) addresses? Device manufacturers assign each hardware device a unique MAC address.
Question 96 What name is given to a protocol to implement a VPN connection between two computers?
Question 97 Which OSI Reference Model layer includes all programs on a computer that interact with the network?
Question 98 A method to restrict access to a network based on identity or other rules is the definition of ________.
Question 99 A method to restrict access to a network based on identity or other rules is the definition of ________.
Question 100 What term is used to describe a method of IP address assignment that uses an alternate, public IP address to hide a system’s real IP address?
Question 101 Malicious code attacks all three information security properties. Malware can modify database records either immediately or over a period of time. This property is ________.
Question 102 Malicious code attacks all three information security properties. Malware can erase or overwrite files or inflict considerable damage to storage media. This property is ________.
Question 103 ________ counter the ability of antivirus programs to detect changes in infected files.
Question 104 Another way that malicious code can threaten businesses is by using mass bulk e-mail (spam), spyware, persistence cookies, and the like, consuming computing resources and reducing user productivity. These are known as ________.
Question 105 One of the ways that malicious code can threaten businesses is by causing economic damage or loss due to the theft, destruction, or unauthorized manipulation of sensitive data. These are known as ________.
Question 106 Which of the following describes the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)?
Question 107 The ________________ is a subcommittee of the IETF that serves as an advisory body to the Internet Society (ISOC). It is composed of independent researchers and professionals who have a technical interest in the well-being of the Internet.
Question 108 The ________ is the main United Nations agency responsible for managing and promoting information and technology issues.
Question 109 The __________ is a national program that empowers and encourages excellence among U.S. organizations, including manufacturers, service organizations, educational institutions, health care providers, and nonprofit organizations.
Question 110 The ________ is a U.S. standards organization whose goal is to empower its members and constituents to strengthen the U.S. marketplace position in the global economy, while helping to ensure the safety and health of consumers and the protection of the environment.
Question 111 The four main areas in NIST SP 800-50 are awareness, training, education, and __________________.
Question 112 With university doctoral programs, completing the degree requirements takes ________.
Question 113 What name is given to educational institutions that meet specific federal information assurance educational guidelines?
Question 114 Obtaining the coveted CAE/IAE or CAE/R designation means the curriculum and research institutions meet or exceed the standards defined by the _______.
Question 115 One type of degree that many institutions offer is the associate’s degree. This degree is the most accessible because it generally represents a _________ program.
Question 116 The ____________ concentration from (ISC)2 is the road map for incorporating security into projects, applications, business processes, and all information systems.
Question 117 The four main credentials of the ________ are Systems Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP®), Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP®), Certified Authorization Professional (CAP®), and Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional (CSSLP®).
Question 118 Which is the highest level of Check Point certification for network security?
Question 119 CompTIA’s Security+ certification provides ________.
Question 120 (ISC)2 offers the ________________ credential, which is one of the few credentials that address developing secure software. It evaluates professionals for the knowledge and skills necessary to develop and deploy secure applications.
Question 121 ____________ creates standards that federal agencies use to classify their data and IT systems.
Question 122 Under HIPAA, an organization that performs a health care activity on behalf of a covered entity is known as a(n) ________.
Question 123 Tier C violations under the HITECH Act are ________.
Question 124 The regulating agency for the Federal Information Systems Management Act is the ________.
Question 125 What is meant by protected health information (PHI)?

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